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If ? 1 and ? are concretely unifiable there is a valuation ? : Var ? T (?\? d )(D) such that ?(? 1 ) = A ?(?) We obtain ?(? 1 ) ? = A ?(?(?) ? ) by Lemma 8, where ? is a variable renaming There are a substitution ? 1 and a valuation ? 1 such that ? 1 (? 1 (y)) = ?(y), for all y ? Y , by Lemma 7. Moreover, ? 1 (? 1 ) = ?(? 1 ) ? by Corollary 5. Since ? includes only variables of data sort, it follows that any position p in the data-abstraction ?(?) ? is a position in ? as well and hence ? is an instance of ?(?) ? . It follows that ? is an instance of ?(?(?) ? ) as well, i.e. there is a substitution ? 2 such, that ? 2 ((?(?(?) ? )) = ?. From ?(? 1 ) ? = A ?(?(?) ? ) and ? 1 (? 1 ) = ?(? 1 ) ? we obtain ? 2 (? 1 (? 1 )) = A ? 2 (?(?(?) ? )) (= A is closed under substitution), which implies ? 2 (? 1 (? 1 )) = A ?, i.e. ? = ? 2 ? ? 1 is in match A (? 1 , ?) ,
Then y ? Var d , which implies ? 1 (y) = y. Then ?(?(y)) = ?(? 2 (y)) = ?(y) by the definition of ? ,